You are a community public health nurse (C/PHN) working with the vulnerable population you identified in Milestone 2(Childhood obesity in community).

Question description
Intervention and Evaluation PowerPoint
PowerPoint Presentation
Introduction: (average of 2-3 slides)
Identify an evidence based intervention: (average of 2–3 slides)

Intervention Implementation: (average of 3–4 slides
Proposed Evaluation Methods: (average of 2–3 slides)
Summary: (average 1 slide)
You are a community public health nurse (C/PHN) working with the vulnerable population you identified in Milestone 2(Childhood obesity in community). Then develop a proposal to implement this intervention and a plan to evaluate the outcomes of this intervention. Create a PowerPoint that you could use to present to an organization in your community to request approval for funding and support for this intervention. (You are not required to implement the intervention or present your PowerPoint, though you may want to consider implementing your project in the future)

 
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Preparing for the Informational Interview

Preparing for the Informational Interview

Begin to prepare for this informational interview by identifying the professional you plan to interview. Ideally, the professional should be engaged in a career that you hope to pursue. (You may want to identify a second candidate in case your initial choice is unable to complete the interview with you.) This professional may work in your local area, but that is not necessary. If you cannot identify a professional easily, ask your friends and family if they know anyone who works in the field of psychology. You may also want to phone your local community mental health center or social services agency to ask for names and contact information of potential professionals you could interview. Contact your facilitator for guidance if you have difficulty in identifying someone.

Tasks

In a 1- to 2-page Microsoft Word document, address the following:

  • Provide the following identifying information about the individual you have selected:
    • The name
    • The job title (licensed psychologist, social worker, or case manager)
    • The level of education (a bachelor’s, master’s, or doctoral degree)
    • A description of job responsibilities or day-to-day tasks
    • The type of license, if applicable
    • The state of residence and practice
    • The e-mail address or phone number
  • Develop a list of at least fifteen questions to ask in your informational interview. Research possible questions to include using the Argosy University online library resources and the Internet. Refer to the Job Resources document to conduct an Internet search using the search terms “informational interview questions” in order to find suggested questions. Be sure to put them into your own words for the purpose of this assignment and to give credit to your source by using in-text citations and a reference list in APA format.
  • Ask the interviewee about his or her work, academic preparation, and advice. In addition, include the interviewee’s answers to questions on the following topics:
    • The experience, skills, and knowledge necessary for success in a career in psychology or in graduate school
    • Relevant professional organizations
    • His or her views on professional ethics and academic integrity
    • The role of psychological research in his or her work
    • His or her greatest challenges and rewards
    • His or her reasons for choosing the field
  • Develop a script (word-for-word written statement) that you will use during the warm-up (meet-and-greet) portion of the interview. What will you say to the interviewee when you meet him or her? What will you do? For example, will you shake the person’s hand and introduce yourself? Include small talk of a professional nature that will serve as an introduction and explanation of the purpose of the interview. Demonstrate in your script your ability to interact professionally and effectively in a professional environment.
  • This assignment is preparatory work for the interview to be conducted later in this course. Do not conduct the interview for this assignment.

Submission Details:

  • Write a 1–2-page paper in Microsoft Word format. Apply APA standards to cite sources.

This is an example of what I need!

Informational Interview

Dr. Robin Brooks is a Licensed Master Social Worker (LMSW) and consultant at LSU Health Sciences Centre in Louisiana. She is also the founder and director of the ‘Putting the pieces together’ Behavioral Health Services (BHS) at LSU. Dr. Robin Brooks is a Ph.D. holder in Behavioral Health from Arizona State University, with over eleven years’ experience in the field. In his routine task, Dr. Brooks oversees developing treatment plans for all his patients, leading the therapy sessions, monitoring patient recovery, along with providing patient care and intervening upon crisis. Dr. Robin can be contacted directly in his LinkedIn bio or even contacted using the med facility administrative number +1504-568-4808 or street address number 433 Bolivar or on LinkedIn (linkedin.com/in/dr-robin-brooks-dbh-lmsw-b1891053).

The primary reason for having the interview with Dr. Robin Brooks is to inquire his insights into a field of study I am passionate to join. I believe that information derived from the interview will be an eye-opener in encouraging me to excel as a future professional mental health counselor. Besides, I am motivated to play a part in alleviating the rising problem of increasing population of mentally challenged people in my society, considering that I also lost close relative due to such state of health (Donaldson et al., 2014).

Questions

Some of the fifteen questions I had drafted before-hand for the interview with Mr. Brooks in understanding the profession seek to inquire about:

1. Why did you choose the profession and what did you like in the profession?

2. Some of your challenging encounters as a BHS specialist?

3. Some of the memorable experience during your career?

4. What number of cases have you intervened and how many do you handle daily?

5. Which is the most intriguing case you have ever handled?

6. What other identified elements of work exposure that should be emphasized during classroom learning?

7. What other qualifications are important for new graduates joining in the field?

8. What are some of the ideal professional bodies you would recommend to students seeking to nature their career?

9. What are your motivation/ drive for working as a mental health specialist?

10. What overall accomplishment/ satisfaction does an individual achieve from being a BHS specialist?

11. What is your take about online degree and on-campus degree for the course?

12. What impact does the job has on one’s personal life?

13. What are your views regarding the level of professionalism and integrity that goes along with the job?

14. What other areas of majors are available for students pursuing this field?

15. What is your general take about the profession, and what is your advice to any student seeking to join the profession?

Interview Script

In commencing the interview, it is essential that the formalities of engagement be prioritized to facilitate a smooth discussion. Therefore, in my discussion, it will be important that I introduce myself with civility by first gesturing for the greeting (along with the hallway or pavement) before introducing myself and my purpose for visit. However, if in the office I would knock before proceeding with the introduction formalities. After which, I will ask for the interviewee consent to have a face-to-face interview, including other acknowledgments of how I seek to achieve the interview purpose (Crosby, 2014).

For example, “greeting Madam? My name is XXX, a final year student at Argosy University pursuing my degree as a social worker. We did communicate a week ago where you booked me an appoint today.” If she consents me to take a sit I will then proceed with the purpose of my invite. “I am glad to have joined you today and hoping to benefit much from your insights about life as a licensed professional social worker in the field”. Also, the interviewer must acknowledge the interviewee for his participation in the interview both through formal acknowledgement and a thank you note. For example, “thank you ones again for your time and patience, I am very grateful to be in your presence and for sharing in detail. I look forward to meet you again in future, all the best in your career and bye.” Generally, it is important to conduct self diligently to enhance the cordial relationship and atmosphere important to encouraging a good interaction platform (Crosby, 2014). Also, it is essential that the interviewer asks for permission all the time when seeking to include other instruments for the interview, or when seeking clarity. Good communication etiquette is paramount to the success of an interview process (Crosby, 2014).

 
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Analyze the following scenario related to delegation according to the NPA, health and medicine homework help

Analyze the following scenario related to delegation according to the NPA, health and medicine homework help


Question descriptionAnalyze the following scenario related to delegation according to your own state’s Nurse Practice Act and compare it to one other state’s Nurse Practice Act. Use citations from the professional nursing literature and your state’s Nurse Practice Act, or scope of practice documents as resources. Include your state’s definition of delegation in your introductory paragraph and the comparison’s state’s definition in the body of the paper.

Scenario:

A registered nurse is very busy on a medical/surgical unit and has two intravenous (IV) catheters that need to be removed so that the patients can be discharged. There are no other RNs available to help. The nurse asks a nursing assistant who is a senior in nursing school to discontinue the IV catheters. The nursing assistant has discontinued IVs as a student and the nurse is aware of this. The nursing assistant discontinues the IVs and the patients are discharged home.

According to your state’s definition of delegation, was the nurse able to delegate this task to the nursing assistant? Why or why not? Compare and contrast this scenario with another delegation scenario from your nursing practice.

SUBMISSION REQUIREMENTS

Remember to use APA 6th edition to format your paper and include at least two citations from peer-reviewed professional nursing literature in addition to other resources.

 
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What is the role of the information and news media in the shaping of political opinions?

 
Imagine you are a news editor. You have been asked to respond to an online discussion thread regarding how information media has affected American culture.
Answer each of the following questions in 100 to 150 words:

  • Does the information media have social responsibility? If yes, in what ways? If not, why not?
  • What is the role of the information and news media in the shaping of political opinions?
  • How have electronic media and their convergence transformed journalism and news consumption
  • How are standards in journalism still relevant and important in today’s media, opinion, and media-saturated world
  • What role does satire have in the news today? How have programs and websites such as The Daily Show, The Colbert Report, and The Onion provided a separate space for commentary on the news and news providers?
 
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Middle Range Theory: Pender's Health Promotion Model

Middle Range Theory: Pender’s Health Promotion Model


Question descriptionAssignment 2: Nursing Theory Analysis Paper

Overview/Description:

The purpose of this assignment is to describe, evaluate and discuss application of a nursing grand or mid-range theory. This assignment also provides the learner an opportunity to connect theory and research to nursing phenomena. Learners will develop an 8-10 page paper (excluding the title page and references) using APA style to address the elements listed below.

Theory/Author Name and Background

  1. Select a Grand or Mid-Range Theory that is appropriate to your practice setting.
  2. Describe the theorist’s background in detail and discuss how their experiences have impacted the theory development.
  3. Examine crucial references for the original and/or current work of the theorist and other authors writing about the selected theory.
  4. Identify the phenomenon of concern or problems addressed by the theory.

Theory Description

  1. Explain whether the theory uses deductive, inductive or retroductive reasoning. Provide evidence to support your conclusion.
  2. Describe the major concepts of the theory. How are they defined? (theoretically and/or operationally) Is the author consistent in the use of the concepts and other terms in the theory?
  3. Interpret how the concepts are defined. Implicitly or explicitly?
  4. Examine the relationships (propositions) among the major concepts.

Evaluation

  1. Identify explicit and implicit assumptions (values/beliefs) underlying the theory. On what assumptions does the theory build?
  2. Examine if the theory has a description of the four concepts of the nursing metaparadigm. If so, how are they explained in the theory? If the metapardigm is not explained, what elements do you see as relevant to the theory and why?
  3. Discuss the clarity of the theory. Did it have lucidness and consistency?

Application

  1. Examine how the theory would guide nursing actions.
  2. Describe specifically how you can use this theory in your area of nursing (Practice, Education, Informatics or Administration).

APA Style/Format

 
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WHAT IS THE PROJECT’S PAYBACK, NPV, AND IRR? INTERPRET EACH OF THESE MEASURES.Twin Falls’ management is currently evaluating a proposed ambulatory (outpatient) surgery center.

WHAT IS THE PROJECT’S PAYBACK, NPV, AND IRR? INTERPRET EACH OF THESE MEASURES.Twin Falls’ management is currently evaluating a proposed ambulatory (outpatient) surgery center.

Twin Falls Community Hospital is a 250-bed, not-for-profit hospital located
in the city of Twin Falls, the largest city in Idaho’s Magic Valley region
and the seventh largest in the state. The hospital was founded in 1972 and
today is acknowledged to be one of the leading healthcare providers in the
area.
Twin Falls’ management is currently evaluating a proposed ambulatory (outpatient) surgery center. Over 80 percent of all outpatient surgery is performed by specialists in gastroenterology, gynecology, ophthalmology, otolaryngology, orthopedics, plastic surgery, and urology. Ambulatory surgery requires an average of about one and one-half hours; minor procedures take about one hour or less, and major procedures take about two or more hours. About 60 percent of the procedures are performed under general anesthesia, 30 percent under local anesthesia, and 10 percent under regional or spinal anesthesia. In general, operating rooms are built in pairs so that a patient can be prepped in one room while the surgeon is completing a procedure in the other room.

The outpatient surgery market has experienced significant growth since the first ambulatory surgery center opened in 1970. This growth has been fueled by three factors. First, rapid advancements in technology have enabled many procedures that were historically performed in inpatient surgical suites to be switched to outpatient settings. This shift was caused mainly by advances in laser, laparoscopic, endoscopic, and arthroscopic technologies. Second, Medicare has been aggressive in approving new minimally invasive surgery techniques, so the number of Medicare patients utilizing outpatient surgery services has grown substantially. Finally, patients prefer outpatient surgeries because they are more convenient, and third-party payers prefer them because they are less costly.

These factors have led to a situation in which the number of inpatient
surgeries has grown little (if at all) in recent years while the number of
outpatient procedures has been growing at over 10 percent annually and now
totals about 22 million a year. Rapid growth in the number of outpatient
surgeries has been accompanied by a corresponding growth in the number of
outpatient surgical facilities. The number currently stands at about 5,000
nationwide, so competition in many areas has become intense. Somewhat
surprisingly, there is no outpatient surgery center in the Twin Falls area,
although there have been rumors that local physicians are exploring the
feasibility of a physician-owned facility.
1

The hospital currently owns a parcel of land that is a perfect location for
the surgery center. The land was purchased five years ago for $350,000, and
last year the hospital spent (and expensed for tax purposes) $25,000 to clear
the land and put in sewer and utility lines. If sold in today’s market, the
land would bring in $500,000, net of realtor commissions and fees. Land
prices have been extremely volatile, so the hospital’s standard procedure is
to assume a salvage value equal to the current value of the land.
The surgery center building, which will house four operating suites, would
cost $5 million and the equipment would cost an additional $5 million, for a
total of $10 million. The project will probably have a long life, but the
hospital typically assumes a five-year life in its capital budgeting analyses
and then approximates the value of the cash flows beyond Year 5 by including
a terminal, or salvage, value in the analysis. To estimate the terminal
value, the hospital typically uses the market value of the building and
equipment after five years, which for this project is estimated to be $5
million, excluding the land value.


 

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NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers

NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers

Find below the NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers, questions only, if you need the answers, please place your order with us.

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  1. The AGACNP is caring for a patient who is quite ill and has developed, among other things, a large right sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is sent for pleural fluid analysis. While evaluating the fluid analysis, the AGACNP knows that a fluid identified as a(n) __________ is the least worrisome type.
  2. Mrs. Miller is transported to the emergency department by paramedics. She is having profound, unremitting chest pain, is diaphoretic and pale. She has jugular venous distention and a widened pulse pressure. Suspecting ascending aortic aneurysm, the AGACNP order which test to confirm the diagnosis?
  3. Certain subgroups of the elderly population are at an increased risk for rapid deterioration and long-term care placement. Which of the following is not considered a high risk factor for long term care placement?
  4. A patient with anterior epistaxis has been treated with 20 minutes of direct pressure to the cartilaginous portion of the nose. Following pressure the patient is instructed to gently blow the nose. Expected findings in the patient who has been successfully treated include all of the following except a:
  5. Kevin is a 14-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a fever of 102.5° F and significant right ear pain. He appears quite ill and says he feels nauseous. Otoscopic evaluation reveals pain to palpation, a very erythematous and bulging tympanic membrane with bullous myringitis. The AGACNP knows that antibiotic therapy must be selected to cover:
  6. P.M. is a 71-year-old gay male patient who presents as an outpatient for evaluation of increasing shortness of breath. The diagnostic evaluation ultimately supports a diagnosis of community acquired pneumonia. The AGACNP appreciates right middle lobe consolidation on chest radiography. Pending sputum cultures, empiric antibiotic therapy must be initiated to cover which organism? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  7. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for vascular dementia?
  8. J.R. is a 55-year-old male who presents for a commercial driver’s license physical examination with a blood pressure of 170/102 mm Hg. He has no medical history and is without complaint. Which of the following findings constitutes hypertensive urgency? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  9. Because of the commonly recognized adverse effects of atypical antipsychotics, annual laboratory assessment for patients taking these medications should include a:
  10. K.R. presents for an evaluation of eye discomfort. He works in a fabricating shop for a custom automobile restoration company and while working he felt like something flew into his eye. He was wearing eye protection at the time but still has the sensation that something is there. Physical examination is significant for some tearing and he reports a persistent sense of something in his eye. Which of the following is not indicated in the diagnostic evaluation? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  11. D.E. is a 41-year-old female who had lumbar surgery two days ago to repair a ruptured nucleus pulposus. She has been doing well postoperatively but today is complaining of resting fatigue and some shortness of breath at rest. In ruling out a pulmonary embolus the AGACNP first orders a:
  12. Mr. Nixon is being treated with unfractionated heparin infusion for acute pulmonary embolus. In order to avoid a potentially fatal complication of heparin infusion, the AGACNP monitors:
  13. Differentiating vertigo from near-syncope and ataxia is one of the goals of history-taking when a patient presents as “dizzy.” The AGACP knows that vertigo is the problem when the patient reports the primary symptom as:
  14. Mr. Banks has been admitted for surgical resection of a metastatic tumor, during surgery it is discovered that he has widespread, diffuse metastasis throughout the abdomen. Surgery is no longer an option, and his oncologist says that chemotherapy is unlikely to produce any meaningful benefit. Mr. Banks is concerned that his sons will not support a transfer to comfort care. The AGACNP advises that he:
  15. Mr. Wilkerson is a 77-year-old male who is being evaluated and treated for his cardiogenic pain. His vital signs are as follows: Temperature of 99.1° F, pulse of 100 bpm, respirations of 22 bpm, and blood pressure of 168/100 mm Hg. A 12-lead ECG reveals deep ST segment depression in leads V3-V6. The AGACNP recognizes which of the following as a contraindication to rTPA therapy? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  16. A 71-year-old patient is recovering from a particularly severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He has been in the hospital for almost two weeks and was on mechanical ventilation for 7 days. While discussing his discharge plan he tells you that he is really going to quit smoking this time. He acknowledges that he has been “sneaking” cigarettes in the hospital for two days, but he has established a timeline to decrease the number of cigarettes daily. According to his plan his last cigarette will be the last day of the month. This patient’s behavior is consistent with which stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Change?
  17. While assessing a patient with a known psychiatric history, the AGACNP knows that the primary difference between a psychotic and neurotic disorders is: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  18. L.T. is an 85-year-old male who is admitted for evaluation of profound diarrhea that has produced significant dehydration. He also complains of being very tired lately, and feeling like he is going to vomit all of the time. His vital signs are significant for a pulse of 41 b.p.m. and a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. A gastrointestinal evaluation including stool for blood, white blood cells, and ova and parasites is negative. He insists that he has not started any new medications or made any diet changes; the only thing new is that he got new eye drops for his glaucoma. The AGACNP correctly assumes that his new eye drops are:
  19. Janice is a 19-year-old female who presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She is pale, diaphoretic, agitated, and convinced she is having a stroke. Her vital signs include a temperature of 98.9° F, pulse of 114 beats per minute, respirations of 32 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 110/74 mm Hg. Diagnostic evaluation is negative and Janice is diagnosed with an acute panic attack. The initial treatment of choice is:
  20. Lorraine is a 41-year-old female who presents for an asthma follow-up visit. She says she feels very well, has almost no daytime symptoms, and is using her inhaled corticosteroid medication daily as prescribed. Her PEFR is 85% of her personal best. The best approach to this patient is to:
  21. Mr. Owen is a 37-year-old patient who has been admitted for surgical resection of a malignant tumor in his lung. His physical recovery has been uneventful and he is being prepared for discharge. While discussing his ongoing cancer therapy with Mr. Owen, the AGACNP determines that he has experienced persistent, excessive anxiety and worry almost every day for more than one year. What other aspect of Mr. Owen’s psychosocial history would be required to made a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder?
  22. Kevin T. is a 49-year-old male who is being discharged after hospitalization for an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. This is his first hospitalization and his first chronic medical diagnosis. Aside from his elevated cardiac isoenzymes and troponins, his laboratory profile was essentially within normal limits. The only apparent cardiac risk factor is an LDL cholesterol of 200 mg/dL. Initiating an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor is an example of which level of prevention for Kevin?
  23. You are evaluating a patient who has been admitted to the emergency room after being arrested for starting a fight in a local sports’ bar. The patient is now being cooperative, but reports that he has been in treatment for PTSD for months. He has been prescribed fluoxetine but has not noticed any improvement in symptoms, and now has been arrested for violence. The AGACNP knows that the next step in medication management is likely to include:
  24. Mrs. Salter is an 81-year-old lady who presents for evaluation of near-syncopal episodes. Her 12-lead ECG, complete blood count, and comprehensive metabolic panel are all essentially normal. A urinalysis shows some trace protein but is otherwise normal. A 24-hour rhythm monitor demonstrates rare premature ventricular contractions. Mrs. Salter has been in good health and had her first episode at her aerobics class. She only gets lightheaded when she exerts herself. Her heart auscultates for a grade III/VI systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the second intercostal space, right sternal border. The AGACP considers that the likely cause of the syncope is:
  25. Who among the following patients is at greatest risk for a pulmonary embolus?
  26. Mrs. Birdsong is an 85-year-old female who has been admitted for surgical repair of a hip fracture. She is in remarkably good spirits and is quite talkative. She readily answers all of the questions on her intake assessment, and readily acknowledges information provided during her room orientation. Later while talking with the patient’s son the AGACNP learns that the patient has had significant cognitive impairment for a few years. She has virtually no short term memory, but compensates by confabulating. Her son says she is generally very happy as long as there is no change in her day to day routine. This history is most consistent with which form of dementia?
  27. Mrs. Radovich is an 80-year-old female with a variety of chronic medical conditions which are reasonably well controlled. She generally enjoys a good quality of life and is active with her family. Today her only concern is that she is having problems with her vision. She notices that while trying to look at pictures of her great grandchildren she can’t seem to focus on their faces. She also reports increased trouble reading—she cannot seem to see the words that she is looking at, and her reading glasses do not help. Further evaluation of Mrs. Radovich should include assessment with:
  28. R.J. is a 55-year-old female who presents with acute onset left sided facial pain and an inability to move the left side of her face. She cannot smile, raise her eyebrow or even close her left eye, The immediate approach to this patient should include:
  29. A 78-year-old male present for a physical examination. He has no discomfort or complaints other than a general decrease in vision, but it helps when he puts things under a bright light to read. He admits that while driving at night the streetlights appear to be a bit distorted and his night vision is pretty poor. Given the likely diagnosis, the AGACNP expects which of the following physical findings?
  30. Jason is a 46-year-old male who is being managed for sepsis. He has HIV/AIDS and has had a prolonged hospitalization characterized by a variety of complications. He was extubated 3 days ago but continues gastric decompression with a nasogastric tube(NGT), total parenteral nutrition and antibiotic therapy via a central venous catheter, and urinary drainage via a Foley catheter. He continues to demonstrate consistent low grade fevers but all points of insertion of his tubes are normal to inspection, a chest radiograph demonstrates improvement of his pneumonia, and his urinalysis shows no bacteria, leukocytes, or nitrites. The AGACNP should next order: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  31. The interpretation of a chest radiography should follow a systematic approach to ensure that all vital structures are evaluated and important clinical findings are not missed. The last thing to be assessed when looking at chest radiography should be the _____________:
  32. The Short Confusion Assessment Method (Short-CAM) is a widely used four item tool that assesses delirium in the hospitalized patient. It includes observation of all of the following except: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  33. Ms. Yang has been hospitalized for 5 days for the management of a gastrointestinal bleeding. She appears to have stabilized hemodynamically, but today she had a temperature of 101.9° F and chest radiography demonstrates a diagnosis of pneumonia. The AGACNP knows that the diagnostic evaluation for hospital acquired pneumonia for all patients must include:
  34. Most psychosocial theories of aging center around the core concept that successful aging requires acceptance of a series of changes or losses that predictably occur later in the life span. The theory that specifically addresses coming to terms with the inevitability of death is known as:
  35. All of the following conditions are risk factors for pulmonary embolus except:
  36. A patient is diagnosed with acute descending aortic aneurysm and hypertension should be immediately started on which medication pending surgical evaluation?
  37. Jason is a 27-year-old with a long history of intermittently controlled asthma. He is currently prescribed Advair daily with albuterol as needed for symptoms. Today he presents to the emergency department with cough and wheezing and difficulty catching his breath. His FEV1is 51% at the time of presentation. He is given alternating albuterol and ipratropium nebulizer treatments along with oral prednisone. After one hour his FEV1 has increased 65%. The appropriate disposition for Jason at this point is:
  38. A patient in the intensive care unit suddenly becomes tachypneic and dyspneic. The physical examination reveals pale, cool, clammy skin and an arterial blood gas demonstrates hypocapnea and hypoxia. Pulmonary artery pressure demonstrates a pattern consistent with obstructive shock. The AGACNP knows that which of the following causes of this presentation is most likely? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  39. Mr. Bowers is an 81-year-old male who is being terminally extubated at the request of his family due to the presence of a large subdural hematoma with a shift; the patient is not initiating respirations on his own and the prognosis is very poor. After he is extubated he begins to initiate his own respirations and 24 hours later has not expired yet. The decision is made to leave him in the hospital on a general medical floor rather than transfer to another facility for hospice. Which of the following is the best indicator that the patient’s death is imminent?
  40. A patient is newly admitted to your service for open reduction and internal fixation of the left hip. She seems very down, and as you talk with her you realize that her mood is not just related to her hip fracture. Which of the following symptoms would not be consistent with major depressive disorder?
  41. “C” is the correct answer. Alzheimer’s dementia is statistically the most common form of dementia and is characterized by a long trajectory that progresses to include confabulation. Additionally, patients with this form of dementia are very reliant upon routine and may be distressed when it is disrupted. “A” is not correct; Lewy body dementia characteristically progresses much more quickly and produces an angry demeanor. “B” is incorrect because vascular dementia typically produces a more depressive affect and is not characterized by confabulation; additionally, patients with vascular dementia often have a medical history consistent with vascular risk factors. “D” is not correct as there is no apparent history of Parkinson’s disease.
  42. What is the primary purpose of using eye ointments or lubricants to patients under general anesthesia, on paralytics, or in long-term comatose states? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  43. When reading a 12-lead electrocardiogram, the AGACNP knows that all 12 leads are required to provide:
  44. A 49-year-old male presents for evaluation of chest tightness. It has happened before, but he just ignored it and it went away. Today he just could not ignore it anymore. He has always enjoyed good health and says he has never been told that he has any chronic medical conditions like high blood pressure or diabetes. A 12-lead ECG demonstrates changes consistent with inferior wall ischemia. Both his symptoms and inferior wall changes improve with the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin. Consistent with ACS protocol, this patient’s assessment is consistent with:
  45. Mr. Rosen is a 49-year-old male who is being managed for an acute myocardial infarction. He develops significant shortness of breath at rest and coarse rales 2/3 up bilaterally. The AGACNP suspects acute pulmonary edema due to papillary muscle rupture and acute mitral valve regurgitation. Which physical finding would support this finding?
  46. A patient with minor head trauma presents for evaluation. Which of the following findings should be followed up with a CT scan to rule out orbital fracture? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  47. Mrs. Forbes is a 69-year-old lady being discharged from the hospital after complications following a cosmetic surgical procedure. She is basically in good health. She has a history of hypothyroidism for which she takes levothyroxine daily, and mild osteoarthritis which is controlled with only prn nonsteroidal use. Her blood pressure is 148/90 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that in accordance with the most current guidelines published in JNC 8 the appropriate action is to:
  48. When assessing driver safety in the older adult, the AGACNP considers that:
  49. The nursing staff calls to tell you that your 81-year-old male patient is having an acute change in mental status. He is a basically healthy man who was admitted three days ago for inpatient antibiotic management of community acquired pneumonia. His daughter is at the bedside and she is very distraught because she has never seen him like this. She is asking for medication to make him stop acting disoriented. Upon examination the patient is lying in bed, appears calm and happy, but does not recognize his daughter as anyone he knows. He is talking as if he is at home and has company. The AGACNP instructs the daughter that: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  50. While discharging a patient following her myocardial infarction, you offer some patient education about medically supervised cardiac rehabilitation. The patient expresses fear of rehab because she was on her treadmill when she had her infarction and now she is afraid of making it happen again. She doesn’t understand how the rehab can force her to exercise her heart but not make her have another cardiac event. The AGACNP explains that the patient will be monitored and that her goal heart rate will be:
  51. During physical examination of a 51-year-old African-American female you appreciate a decrease in her peripheral vision. The rest of her eye examination is within normal limits and she is symptom free. This presentation is consistent with:
  52. Mr. Moffett is a 66-year-old male with a long history of lower extremity edema. All other causes of lower extremity edema have been ruled out and his overall symptom presentation and history are strongly supportive of chronic venous insufficiency. Today he presents with increased itching of both lower legs. Physical exam reveals 2-3+ pitting edema and trophic hyperpigmentation. The AGACNP know that treatment should include:
  53. L.R. is an 84-year-old female patient being treated for pneumonia. Her condition is deteriorating despite aggressive broad spectrum antipseudomonal cephalosporin antibiotic therapy. Induced sputum culture reveals heavy growth of Legionella pneumophilia. The AGACNP knows that antibiotic therapy must be adjusted to include coverage with:
  54. The AGACNP is treating a patient with a corneal abrasion. The patient has a clear recollection of the mechanism of injury—she was scratched in the eye earlier today with her 18-month-old daughter’s fingernail. Which of the following is contraindicated in the management of this patient’s abrasion?
  55. M.T. is a 41-year-old male patient in the intensive care unit. He was admitted to the hospital in septic shock and has been aggressively managed with broad spectrum antibiotics. He has become progressively hypoxemic and the last arterial blood gas revealed a paO2of 58 mm Hg. Chest radiography reveals a “white out” pattern bilaterally. The patient is intubated and ventilated. The AGACNP knows that appropriate management must include:
  56. Teenagers and adults with acute otitis media can often be treated with “watchful waiting” given the high incidence of spontaneous resolution and low risk of poor outcomes. Which of the following is an absolute indication to begin antibiotic therapy at the time of diagnosis?
  57. Mr. Bowers is on mechanical ventilation for respiratory support through an episode of septic pneumonia. Due the extensive lobar consolidation it was very difficult to keep Mr. Bowers oxygenated and he required very high FIO2s and PEEP. The AGACNP knows that the primary concern with FIO2s > 60% is:
  58. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) occurs when an overwhelming systemic insult results in which maladaptive physiologic response? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  59. Acute respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by which abnormality of ventilation and perfusion?
  60. George Schulz is a 69-year-old male who presents for evaluation of acute foot pain. It is so painful that he cannot walk on it without assistance. At first he denies any significant medical history, but then reveals that he has been diagnosed with dyslipidemia and hypertension but stopped taking his medications because he couldn’t afford it. Pulses are not palpable but are audible by Doppler. The extremity is pale and shiny with decreased hair growth, suspecting peripheral arterial disease, the AGACNP expects which additional finding?
  61. G.T. is a 40-year-old male who is under your case for long term management of secondary osteoarthritis. Today he asks if he can take a medication for anxiety. Further assessment reveals that he is in a relationship that has been very stressful; his girlfriend wants very much to get married and start a family, and he does not. He admits that he no longer feels they are compatible and acknowledges that he needs to end this relationship. He is sure that this is the source of his anxiety. The best approach would be to:
  62. During the physical examination of a 31-year-old female, the AGACNP appreciates a bifurcate uvula. The most appropriate action would be to:
  63. During routine immigration screening a 29-year-old male patient from Mexico has a positive purified protein derivative (PPD) test at 17 mm induration. He reports no known history of tuberculosis (TB) infection or exposure, or vaccination with the BCG vaccine. Chest x-ray is negative for any evidence of TB exposure. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate next step is to:
  64. Clinical diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) include all of the following except:
  65. While managing a patient in acute pulmonary edema, the AGACNP monitors the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure. When this pressure falls below 12 mm Hg it suggests that:
  66. All of the following are important elements of the immediate management of penetrating eye injury except:
  67. While evaluating a patient with diastolic failure due to a long history of uncontrolled hemochromatosis, the AGACNP appreciates an extra heart sound just before the S1heart sound. This sound is most likely a(n):
  68. Secondary hypertension occurs in approximately 10% of all patients with hypertension, and requires management of the underlying problem in order to eliminate the cause. Which of the following is not a secondary cause of hypertension?
  69. L.M, is a 26-year-old male who presents to the emergency department complaining of acute onset vertigo this morning. He describes a strong sense of the room spinning and can barely walk without feeling nauseous. The vertigo is reproducible when his neck is rotated suddenly left or right. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is not indicated? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  70. A 36-year-old female presents complaining of left leg swelling. She describes the onset as acute over the last day or two, and says it feels “tight and throbbing.” She denies any significant medical history and says the only medication she takes is oral contraception, which she has taken since she was 15 years old. The AGACNP first orders:
  71. The primary neurotransmitter implicated in post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is:
  72. Mr. Avila is an 82-year-old male being counseled about the risks and benefits of his upcoming abdominal surgery. While considering risk factors for atelectasis, pneumonia and other pulmonary complications, the AGACNP advises that the greatest risk comes from:
  73. The female AGACNP is practicing with a cardiology group and sees patients one day a week in the outpatient office. A 49-year-old female presents for follow-up after her admission for infective endocarditis. She is recovering well, and says that she is going to be more proactive about her health. She admits to not having had any of her regular health screenings for years, and asks if she can have her Pap performed at this office. The AGACNP:
  74. The AGACNP is seeing a patient who was transferred from the correctional facility for evaluation. He has a profound purulent discharge from his right eye. The conjunctive is erythematous and there is mild photosensitivity. The inmate denies any real eye pain, just says that it is extremely uncomfortable. Treatment for this patient is likely to include:
  75. Ms. Ewing is a 78-year-old female who lives in a long term care facility because her dementia has progressed to the point at which her family cannot provide the necessary safety measures at home. In addition to her absent short term memory she has developed some affective changes and most recently is demonstrating sexual disinhibition. While considering management options, the AGACNP knows that all of the following are medications are options for the management of disinhibition except:
  76. A patient recently had a nasal packing inserted for management of refractory epistaxis. One week later he presents with fatigue, a headache “inside of his nose” and a feeling generally unwell. The AGACNP considers:
  77. A 55-year-old female patient presents with a fever of 103.4° F. She was treated approximately 10 days ago at urgent care for a sinus infection, but two days ago the right side of her fact started to hurt, and today she has significant swelling of the right orbit and eyelid. The eyelid is very edematous and there is purulent drainage noted. The priority of care for this patient begins with:
  78. Which of the following is the best indicator that pulmonary rehabilitation has been successful in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  79. Mrs. Marriott is being discharged to home after being managed for an exacerbation of congestive heart failure. She is currently feeling well but her ejection fraction after optimal diuresis and fluid management is 29%. The AGACNP knows that her discharge medications must include:
  80. Which of the following is an accurate statement with respect to the assessment of delirium in the geriatric patient?
  81. Mrs. Warner is a 57-year-old female who presents with unplanned weight loss. Chest radiography reveals diffuse hyperlucency of the left lung and in the lower half of the right lung. The AGACNP knows that the differential diagnosis for hyperlucency include all of the following except:
  82. When evaluating a patient with epistaxis, which of the following signs or symptoms is suggestive of a more serious etiology and posterior packing?
  83. R.M. is a 15-year-old male who presents to the emergency department with his mother. Mom says he has been complaining that his throat hurts so badly he cannot even swallow saliva. According to Mom R.M. is not the type to complain, but he is in so much pain with his throat he is almost crying. He has no significant medical history and takes no daily medications. He has no allergies of which his mother is aware. Upon physical examination he is febrile with a temperature of 102.4° F and he is a bit tachycardic, but other vital signs or normal. Inspection of the throat is basically unremarkable—the AGACNP does not appreciate any abscesses, edema, or exudate; there may be some slight erythema. The AGACNP becomes suspicious that the patient:
  84. Mr. Stossel is a 66-year-old male patient who was admitted for management of acute anterior wall myocardial infarction. Over a period of hours he has developed acute shortness of breath, coarse rales to auscultation, and Kerley B lines on chest radiography. Arterial blood gas reveals a pH of 7.34, pCO2of 30 mm Hg, and paO2 of 59 mm Hg. The AGACNP anticipates which of the following findings on physical examination?
  85. According to the revised criteria in DSM-V, the primary difference between panic attacks and panic disorder is that: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  86. Mr. Wilson is a 71-year-old male who has been treated with prn short acting anticholinergics for his COPD. Last week he developed an exacerbation that required a 4 day hospitalization for support and stabilization. He was discharged on a five day course of prednisone and now presents for follow-up. The AGACNP knows that his outpatient medication regimen should be adjusted to include:

What is the primary difference in patient management between high risk non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (MI) and the low risk non-ST elevation MI patient?

J.T. is a 26-year-old female patient being evaluated for eye discharge. She says that for the last few days she has developed this sticky, string-like discharge in both eyes. She denies any pain or visual changes, but does admit to a sense of “something in my eyes” and that her eyes itch a lot. Physical examination reveals injected conjunctiva, rope-like discharge bilaterally; pupil response is equal and brisk in both eyes. Which factor in the patient’s history would be supportive of the most likely diagnosis? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers

The pathophysiology of endogenous depression is best described as

The diagnostic study most supportive of a diagnosis of pericarditis is:

A 31-year-old male presents to urgent care because he has something in his eye. He was changing the oil under his car and says that something dropped into his eye. He is not having any pain, in fact he waited a day before coming in because he thought it would work itself out. Physical exam reveals a black 1 mm foreign body visible on the corneal surface. The most appropriate intervention is to:

A patient with pericarditis is most appropriately treated with:

Which of the following is not a risk factor for thoracic aneurysm?

The “MONA” acronym provides guidance for immediate interventions in the patient with:

Mr. Sloane is a 36-year-old male patient who presents for treatment of eye pain. He has no significant medical history and does not take any daily or over-the-counter medications. His only recent history is nighttime allergies for which he takes occasional diphenhydramine with good relief. He has had some throbbing in his eye for the last few days on and off but just ignored it; today he says it is flat out painful and he had to come to the emergency department. The eye is throbbing and painful, and he reports generalized decreased vision. The pupil is dilated to 5 mm and non-reactive to light. The eye conjunctiva is reddened. The next step in the diagnostic evaluation should be:

The AGACNP counsels a patient with recurrent epistaxis that the most common cause of nose bleeding is

The geriatric depression scale (GDS) is a commonly used tool to diagnose depression in the elderly population. It comes in a variety of forms for maximal utility. When administering the geriatric depression scale to patients, the AGACNP recognizes that it is extremely important to:

Ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP) is a significant problem impacting morbidity, mortality and the cost of inpatient health care. Data-supported mechanisms to reduce the risk for VAP include all of the following except:

Absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy in the patient having an acute myocardial infarction include all of the following except:

Which of the following is not a true statement with respect to risk for or occurrence of elder abuse? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers

 
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Select a health care organization in your community to conduct an interview with an appropriate risk management employee. The organization can be your current employer, or a different health care facility in your community

Select a health care organization in your community to conduct an interview with an appropriate risk management employee. The organization can be your current employer, or a different health care facility in your community. Acute care, urgent care, large multi-provider private medical clinics, assisted living facilities, and community/public health clinical facilities are all ideal options to complete the requirements of this assignment. Make sure to select an individual who can provide sufficient information regarding how that organization manages risk within its facility to answer the questions below.

In your interview, address the following:

Identification of the challenges the organization faces in controlling infectious diseases.
Risk management strategies used in the organization’s infection control program, along with specific examples.
How the facility’s educational risk management program addresses key professional issues, such as prevention of negligence, malpractice litigation, and vicarious liability.
Policies the facility has implemented that address managing emergency triage in high-risk areas of health care service delivery.
Strategies the facility utilizes to monitor and maintain its risk management program.
Post-interview, compose a 750-1,000 word summary analysis of the interview to include the questions above as well as the following elements:

A brief assessment of the organization’s risk management program, including what works well and what could work better (the pros and cons).
Action steps you would take to improve the program. Select one area and provide your rationale and possible steps required to implement your suggestion.
Cite appropriate references as needed to support your statements and rationale.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

 
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Explain the findings/outcomes of the study in the article. Include whether this will translate into practice with your own clients. If so, how

  • Select one of the psychodynamic therapy articles below to evaluate for this Assignment.

 

Aznar-Martinez, B., Perez-Testor, C., Davins, M., & Aramburu, I. (2016). Couple psychoanalytic psychotherapy as the treatment of choice: Indications, challenges, and benefits. Psychoanalytic Psychology, 33(1), 1–20. doi:10.1037/a0038503

Karbelnig, A. M. (2016). “The analyst is present”: Viewing the psychoanalytic process as performance art. Psychoanalytic Psychology, 33(supplement 1), S153–S172. doi:10.1037/a0037332

LaMothe, R. (2015). A future project of psychoanalytic psychotherapy: Revisiting the debate between classical/commitment and analytic therapies. Psychoanalytic Psychology, 32(2), 334–351. doi:10.1037/a0035982

Migone, P. (2013). Psychoanalysis on the Internet: A discussion of its theoretical implications for both online and offline therapeutic technique. Psychoanalytic Psychology, 30(2), 281–299. doi:10.1037/a0031507

Tummala-Narra, P. (2013). Psychoanalytic applications in a diverse society. Psychoanalytic Psychology, 30(3), 471–487. doi:10.1037/a0031375

 
In a 5- to 10-slide PowerPoint presentation, address the following:

  • Provide an overview of the article you selected.
    • What population is under consideration?
    • What was the specific intervention that was used? Is this a new intervention or one that was already used?
    • What were the author’s claims?
  • Explain the findings/outcomes of the study in the article. Include whether this will translate into practice with your own clients. If so, how? If not, why?
  • Explain whether the limitations of the study might impact your ability to use the findings/outcomes presented in the article. Support your position with evidence-based literature.
 
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Select a psychoactive drug that is of pharmacological interest to you, but not one you will review as part of your Critical Review or one that was included in your previous Rapid Review.

Rapid Review 2  Select a psychoactive drug that is of pharmacological interest to you, but not one you will review as part of your Critical Review or one that was included in your previous Rapid Review. For this paper, you may choose drugs of abuse; however, the paper must focus on the pharmacology of the drug and not on the social or addictive aspects.  If you focus on addiction and social impact, your paper will not receive credit.  In addition to the text, research a minimum of three peer-reviewed articles published within the last five years on your selected drug. Prepare a three-page summary of the drug using the PSY630 Rapid Review Example paper (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. as a guide.  In your Rapid Review, analyze and explain the pharmacological aspects of the drug as they relate to the following: neurotransmitters affected, receptors, route of administration, half-life, doses, side effects, drug interactions, contraindications, and other important facets of the drug. Explain these aspects of the drug in terms of the psychiatric disorders indicated for the drug and the issue(s) associated with that use. If there is no accepted therapeutic use for the drug, evaluate and describe the actions of the drug with regard to the abuse process.  The paper: •Must be three to five double-spaced pages in length, excluding title page and references page, and it must be formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center. (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.  •Must include a title page with the following: ◦Title of paper ◦Your name ◦Course name and number ◦Your instructor’s name ◦Date submitted •Must address the topic of the paper with critical thought. •Must use at least three peer-reviewed sources in addition to the text. •Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center. •Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
 
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